asked the Minister for Agriculture and Fisheries if his attention has been drawn to a statement (details supplied) that producers are receiving from 50p to £1 less for lambs than they received in 1970; and if he will make a statement on the matter.

I have seen the statement referred to and agree that lamb prices have been down somewhat this year as compared with last year.

Last year's prices were, of course, exceptionally high. This year the mild weather conditions brought greater supplies of hoggets and lambs on the market earlier than usual, and this was reflected in market prices.

I have, of course, been watching the situation carefully and taking whatever steps are feasible to help to keep up the lamb prices. These measures included the extension for an extra two weeks of the seasonal export subsidy additions made in the first half of this year and the suspension of the deductions due to be made in the second half of the year.

Is it a fact that the Department of Agriculture refused to pay the full subsidy on lamb going to France as against that going to Great Britain when the French trade was opened from the 1st May to the middle of June?

No, but it is a fact that the French variable levies were introduced and they affected our French trade adversely. It is also a fact that there were increased exports of British lamb into the French market this year as distinct from other years. This also had the effect of absorbing the capacity of the available French market and had an adverse effect on our lamb market.

When the Minister states that the price of lambs last year was exceptionally high is he implying——

I did not say that.

The Minister did.

I did.

When the Minister states that lamb prices last year were exceptionally high is he implying that we were getting a good price last year or a market price last year? When he compares last year's lamb prices with this year's prices is he now conceding that the prices are uneconomic? Could the Minister explain why the prices have fallen so badly from last year?

I have the current prices for lambs from the Dublin cattle market report of the 21st July, 1971, and they are in the range of £7 to £7.40. In the same week of last year they were £7.75 to £10.25. The price is somewhat less, as I have already said, for the reasons I have already stated.

Question No. 31.

I want to ask a further supplementary question.

I am calling Question No. 31. Is the Deputy raising a point of order?

It is a point of order. Am I not allowed to ask a second supplementary question?

Not necessarily.

Does the Minister think a fair comparison is to be made between the overall price of lamb as against the deadweight price per pound? Is it the deadweight price per pound which determines the price of lamb?

Generally speaking, yes. There is a direct relationship between the deadweight price of lamb and the price per pound.

There is, but the comparison is made here on the deadweight poundage and not on the headage.

The Deputy is suggesting that I compared unlike quantities. I do not think I did that.

Of course the Minister did.