Would the Taoiseach not agree that a declaration by the British Government which he is urging to the effect that they wish to work towards or should work towards a united Ireland may, and indeed would be interpreted by the majority in Northern Ireland as a form of coercion? Does or does not the Taoiseach rule out coercion as a means of solving this problem, unequivocally rule it out whether by himself or by other Governments?

I do not think it would amount to coercion.

Would the Taoiseach not agree that it would be viewed by the majority in Northern Ireland as a form of coercion?

I do not think so.

Is it in fact not encouraging, by proxy, coercion?

Ceist a cúig.

I should like a reply before we go to the next question.

Just one question——

Could I have my request?

The question was answered for you and I have now gone to question five.

I did not hear the answer.

I heard it answered.

The sound is bad; would the Taoiseach repeat his answer?

Would the Deputy repeat his supplementary question?

Certainly. Does the Taoiseach not agree that if he is urging the British Government or any other Government but particularly the British Government, to declare in favour of a united Ireland, that this could and would be regarded by the majority in Northern Ireland as a form of coercion? Does or does not the Taoiseach unequivocally rule out coercion as a means of solving this problem? If he does, does he not see it as using coercion by proxy to try to get some other Government?

I do not see the concept of coercion as being involved at all. It would be very helpful if the British Government were to make such a declaration. I understand that my view in this regard is shared by most Deputies of the House, including the Leader of the Opposition.